حل شييت البيو لمجموعه أ

الف شكر يا دكتوره مروه وربنا يجعله فى ميزان حسناتك
اللهم امين.......................................

اجابة رقم 7
c
متشكر جدا على ردك يادكتوره

ياريت نتاكد من اجابة رقم 7
هل هى
c or d

:flower: السلام عليكم ورحمه الله وبركاته
ازيك يامروه
اولا جزاكى الله خيرا
ثانيا انا الحل مش واصل عندى مش عارفه ليه
ممكن تبعتيه على الايميل shosho_semsem_5@yahoo.com
ضرورى لو سمحتى

ممكن يا شيماء ابعتهولك انا لو تحبى ولو مستعجله عليه

انا بيتهيقلى انها d
مش c
والله اعلم حد تانى يفيدنا يا جماعه

السلام عليكم شكرا لمجهوك يا مروة بس انا نزلت الملف ومفتحش على الكمبيوتر مش عارفة ليه ياريت حد يقولى اعمل ايه وشكرا

رقم 70 هنا الاجابه لانها مش واضحه
1.f
2.g
3.i
4.j
5.c
6.b

ممكن تبعتيه على الاميل يا مروة emeyabdo@yahoo.com
وجزاك الله خيرا يا مروة

دكتوره مروه
جزاكي الله خيرا
فعلا اشعر ان هناك تسابق من الجميع لتقديم اي شيء يخدم الاخرين
بصراحه حاسس اننا في تسابق
لمن يقدم جديد
ربنا يوفقنا جميعا

بصى يا ايمى
انا نزلت الحل على المنتدى انا وواحده صاحبتى
وهو موجود دلوقت وهينزل حالا النظرى لو محتاجه برضه ابعته على الميل اوك ابعتلك

p_toluidine
ميرسى ليك جدا يا دكتور
وربنا معانا كلنا

ودا حل شبتر 5 في نظري البيو
1 e
2_ملغي
3_a c
c a
b b
4_c
5_c
6_a
7_d
8_b
9_b
10_a
11_d
12_c
13_c
14_a
15_b
16_a
17_a
20_c
18_d
19_d
20_c
21_b
22_b
رقم 20 بعد 17 وبعدين نكمل هنلاقي 20 برده اوك
ربنا الموفق سلاااااااااااااام
16_

شكرا ليكى يا جنا وبكده يكون عندنا البيو للى مش عارف يحمله من على اللينك
واى خدمه يا جماعه
وربنا يوفقنا جميعااااااااااااااااا

بجد انا بشكركم جدا على المجهود الرائع ده وربنا يوفقكم
بس حل الشيت ده من الدكتور ولا ايه ؟؟؟ يعنى ان شاء الله الحل ده متأكدين منه ؟؟؟؟؟؟؟؟؟

شكرا جزيلا لجميع الزملاء وتمنياتى بالتوفيق لكم جميعا

ايوه حل الشيت من الدكتور وان شاء الله يكون تمام
وتمنياتى ليكم كلكم بالتوفيق

شكرا بجد يا دكاترة على مجهودكم الكبير دة
بس ممكن حد يعرفنا بس مين مصدر الاجابات دى ؟؟؟
يعنى دى الدكتور ابراهيم اللى حلها ولا زمايلنا ولا اية بالظبط ؟

من فضلكم ياجماعه حد يعرف ايه اللى دكتور الحاسب قاله لمجموعه (ب) بعد امتحان الهيستو

ألمصدر بتاع الاجابات من الدكتور طلبه زمايلنا جابوه منه والدليل ان فى اسئله ملغيه
وكمان هو دا اللى موجود فى المنتدى اصلا بس فى ناس حملوه ومش فتح عندهم فعلشان الافاده نزلت الاجابات
وبس وربنا معانا

ميرسى يا مروه
بجد فكره كويسه عشان اللى مش عارف يحمل الشيت يقدر يستفاد من الاجابه

شكرا ليكم يا جماعة على روحكم الحلوة بتعاونكم معانا وربنا يوفقنا كلنا

العفو يا جماعه احنا بس عايزين نخدم ونساعد الكل لاننا كلنا روح واحده

يا جماعه انتوا متاكدين نت الحل ده

يا جماعه
الف شكررررررررررررررررررررررررررررررررررر
ايوة كده

ده ياجماعه حل شيت البايو لشابتر 5 والعملى عشان للى الرابط مش بيفتح معاه
*************************************************
Selected Problem Set (MCQ): Chapter 5: Nucleic Acids
1. Which of the following statements about DNA structure is TRUE?
a. DNA can exist as either a right-handed or a left-handed helix
b. When supercoiled, the DNA molecule becomes compacted and will sediment at
an increased rate in a centrifuge
c. The helical axis of a DNA molecule may twist, changing the relative rotation of a
strand around it .
d. DNA extracted from natural sources is almost always negatively supercoiled
e. All of the above
Answer: E
2. Activators of transcription include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. DNA looping
b. recA protein
c. Class I activator proteins
d. Class 11 activator proteins
e. DNA supercoiling
Answer: E
(Cancelled !!!)
3. Match the biological polymer with it's monomer and it's class of compound ?
a. DNA __A___ Nucleotide ___C__ Carbohydrate
b. Enzyme __C___ Simple sugar __A___ Nucleic Acid
c. Glycogen B_ Amino acid _ B_ Protein
4. RNA is synthesized on a DNA template in a process called ______, which utilizes the
enzyme _______
a. translation, RNA polymerase b. transcription, DNA polymerase c. transcription,
RNA polymerase d. replication, DNA polymerase
Answer: C
5. Which of the following is NOT a necessary component of translation?
a. anticodon b. mRNA c. Ligase d. amino acid
Answer: C
6. Amino acids are joined together into a protein chain by which of the following?
a. transfer RNA b. DNA polymerase c. hydrogen bonds d. messenger RNA
Answer: A
7. Once transcription has been completed, which of the following is NOT necessary for
protein synethesis to occur?
a. tRNA b. ribosomes c. mRNA d. DNA
Answer: D
8. Which of the following is a correct pairing of bases in a DNA molecule?
a. Adenine - cytosine c. adenine - guanine
b. adenine - thymine d. adenine – adenine
Answer: B
9. DNA is called the code of life. What does this mean?
a. DNA is the powerhouse of the cell.
b. All the information needed to make and control every part of an
organism is found in DNA.
c. DNA is deoxyribonucleic acid and makes up the cytoplasm of the
cell.
d. The time of death of an organism is contained in DNA’s structure.
Answer: B
10. DNA molecules form exact duplicates of themselves in the process of
a. replication c. Meiosis c. nondisjunction d. Translation
Answer: A
11. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is useful because
a. It can amplify DNA from extremely small amounts of starting material
b. It can be used to amplify specific DNA sequences
c. It can be used after production of cDNA via reverse transcription
d. a,b & c
e. a & b
Answer: D
12. Replication proceeds in a ____ to _____ direction
a. 3' to 3' b. 3' to 5' c. 5' to 3' d. 5' to 5'
Answer: C
13. Considering DNA replication along the 5' to 3' template strand, what event takes
place first?
a. DNA polymerase begins adding RNA nucleotid
b. DNA polymerase begins adding DNA nucleotides
c. primase adds an RNA primer.
d. primase removes the 5' phosphate
Answer: C
14. PCR requires knowledge about parts of a target DNA sequence to be amplified. True
or false?
a. true, b. false
Answer: A
15. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
A. DNA cannot be found in semen
B. The DNA fingerprint is unique for all the people except twins;
C. DNA fragments are joined together by gel electrophoresis
D. DNA is a short chain molecules that present in the cytoplasm of a cell
Answer: B
16. Adenine always pairs with:
a. thymine b. cytosine c. guanine d. ribose
Answer: A
17. The DNA molecule is held together by:
a. hydrogen bonds b. magnetism c. glucose d. glue
Answer: A
20. The twisted ladder shape of DNA is called a:
a. hydrogen twist, b. deoxyribose flip c. double helix d. double membrane
Answer: C
18. The sugar found in DNA is:
a. fructose b. deoxyribose c. ribose d. glucose
Answer: B
19. RNA differs from DNA in that:
a. it has a different kind of sugar b. it is single stranded c. it has uracil d. all of these
Answer: D
20. DNA is called the "blueprint of life" because:
a. it is like a fingerprint b. it has a blue color c. it contains the plans for building an
organism d. it can relay messages to other molecules
Answer: C
21. Which process is used in the field of forensics?
a. Cloning, b. gel electrophoresis c. producing insulin d. Eating a twinkie
Answer: B
22. What is a DNA fingerprint?
a. Picture of a white horse in a snow storm b. Pattern of bands made up of specific
fragments from an individuals DNA.. c. Enzymes that are X-rayed the same thing as a
thumb print.
Answer: B

elected Problem Set (MCQ) for Practical Biochemistry Exam.
1. Which of the biochemical processes below is promoted by insulin?
A. Glycogenolysis B. Gluconeogenesis
C. Lipolysis D. Uptake of glucose by cells
Answer: D
2. Which of the following hormones promotes hyperglycemia?
A. Cortisol B. Growth hormone C. Epinephrine D. All of the above
Answer: D
3. Which of the following is characteristic of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A. Requires an oral glucose tolerance test for Diagnosis B. Is the most
common form of diabetes mellitus C. Usually occurs after age 40 D.
Requires insulin replacement to prevent ketosis
Answer: D
4. Which of the following is characteristic of type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A. Insulin levels are consistently low.
B. Most cases require a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test to diagnose.
C. Hyperglycemia is often controlled without insulin replacement.
D. The condition is associated with unexplained weight loss.
Answer: C
5. Which of the following results is confirmatory for diabetes mellitus?
A. FBG of 120 mg/dL B. Two-hour postprandial glucose of 160 mg/dL
C. Two-hour oral glucose tolerance values of 255 and 205 mg/dL.
D. Random urine glucose of 250 mg/dL
Answer: C
6. Select the appropriate reference range for fasting blood glucose.
A. 40–100 mg/dL (2.22–5.55 mmol/L) B. 60–140 mg/dL (3.33–7.77
mmol/L) C. 65–109 mg/dL (3.61–6.10 mmol/L) D. 75–150 mg/dL
(4.16–8.32 mmol/L)
Answer: C
7. Select the enzyme that is most specific for b-Dglucose.
A. Hexokinase B. G-6-PD C. Phosphohexisomerase D. Glucose
oxidase
Answer: D
8. In peroxidase coupled glucose methods, which reagent complexes with
the chromogen?
A. Nitroprusside B. Phenol C. Tartrate D. Hydroxide
Answer: B
9. Which of the statements below regarding the metabolism of bilirubin is
true?
A. It is formed by hydrolysis of the a methane bridge of biliverdin. B. It is
reduced to biliverdin prior to excretion. C. It is a product of porphyrin
metabolism. D. It is produced from the destruction of RBCs.
Answer: D
10. Bilirubin is transported from reticuloendothelial cells to the liver by:
A. Albumin B. Bilirubin-binding globulin C. Haptoglobin D. Transferrin
Answer: A
12. In the liver bilirubin is conjugated by addition of:
A. Vinyl groups B. Methyl groups C. Hydroxyl groups D. Glucuronyl
groups
Answer: D
13. Which enzyme is responsible for the conjugation of bilirubin?
A. Beta-Glucuronidase B. UDP-glucuronyl transferase C. Bilirubin
oxidase D. Biliverdin reductase
Answer: B
14. The term d-bilirubin refers to:
A. Water-soluble bilirubin B. Free unconjugated bilirubin C. Bilirubin
tightly bound to albumin D. Direct-reacting bilirubin
Answer: C
HPLC separates bilirubin into four fractions: a = unconjugated, b =
monoglucuronide, g = diglucuronide, d = irreversibly albumin bound. d
Bilirubin is a separate fraction from the unconjugated bilirubin, which
is bound loosely to albumin. d Bilirubin and conjugated bilirubin react
with diazo reagent in the direct bilirubin assay.
15. Which of the following processes is part of the normal metabolism of
bilirubin?
A. Both conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin are excreted into the bile. B.
Methene bridges of bilirubin are reduced by intestinal bacteria forming
urobilinogens. C. Most of the bilirubin delivered into the intestine is
reabsorbed. D. Bilirubin and urobilinogen reabsorbed from the intestine
are mainly excreted by the kidneys.
Answer: B
Most of the conjugated bilirubin delivered into the intestine is
deconjugated by b−glucuronidase and then reduced by intestinal flora
to form three different reduction products collectively called
urobilinogens. The majority of bilirubin and urobilinogen in the
intestine are not reabsorbed. Most of that which is reabsorbed is reexcreted
by the liver. The portal vein delivers blood from the bowel to
the sinusoids. Hepatocytes take up about 90% of the returned bile
pigments and secrete them again into the bile. This process is termed
the enterohepatic circulation.
16. Which of the following is a characteristic of conjugated bilirubin?
A. It is water-soluble. B. It reacts more slowly than unconjugated bilirubin.
C. It is more stable than unconjugated bilirubin. D. All of the above.
Answer: A
17. Which of the following statements regarding urobilinogen is true?
A. It is formed in the intestines by bacterial reduction of bilirubin.
B. It consists of three distinct water-soluble pigments differing by extent of
reduction. C. It is measured by its reaction with p dimethylaminobenzaldehyde.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Urobilinogen is a collective term given to the reduction products of
bilirubin formed by the action of enteric bacteria. Urobilinogen
excretion is increased in hemolytic anemia and decreased in obstructive
jaundice.
18. Which statement regarding bilirubin metabolism is true?
A. Bilirubin undergoes rapid photo-oxidation when exposed to daylight.
B. Bilirubin excretion is inhibited by barbiturates. C. Bilirubin excretion is
increased by chlorpromazine. D. Bilirubin is excreted only as the
diglucuronide.
Answer: A
Samples for bilirubin analysis must be protected from direct daylight.
19. In hepatitis the rise in serum conjugated bilirubin can be caused by:
A. Secondary renal insufficiency B. Failure of the enterohepatic
circulation C. Enzymatic conversion of urobilinogen to bilirubin
D. Extrahepatic conjugation
Answer: B
Conjugated bilirubin is increased in hepatitis and other causes of
hepatic necrosis due to failure to re-excrete conjugated bilirubin
reabsorbed from the intestine. Increased direct bilirubin can also be
attributed to accompanying intrahepatic obstruction, which blocks the
flow of bile.
20. Which of the following is a characteristic of obstructive jaundice?
A. The ratio of direct to total bilirubin is greater than 1:2. B. Conjugated
bilirubin is elevated, but unconjugated bilirubin is normal. C. Urinary
urobilinogen is increased. D. Urinary bilirubin is normal.
Answer: A
Obstruction prevents conjugated bilirubin from reaching the intestine
resulting in decreased production, excretion, and absorption of
urobilinogen. Conjugated bilirubin regurgitates into sinusoidal blood
and enters the general circulation via the hepatic vein. The level of
serum direct bilirubin (conjugated) becomes greater than unconjugated
bilirubin.
21. Which of the following would cause an increase in only the
unconjugated bilirubin? A. Hemolytic anemia B. Obstructive jaundice
C. Hepatitis D. Hepatic cirrhosis
Answer: A
22. Which statement about colorimetric bilirubin methods is true?
A. Direct bilirubin must react with diazo reagent under alkaline conditions.
B. Most methods are based upon reaction with diazotized sulfanilic acid. C.
Ascorbic acid can be used to eliminate interference caused by Hgb.
D. The color of the azobilirubin product is independent of pH.
Answer: B
23. Creatinine is formed from the:
A. Oxidation of creatine B. Oxidation of protein C. Deamination of dibasic
amino acids D. Metabolism of purines
Answer: A
24. Creatinine is considered the substance of choice to measure endogenous
renal clearance because:
A. The rate of formation per day is independent of body size.
B. It is completely filtered by the glomeruli.
C. Plasma levels are highly dependent upon diet.
D. Clearance is the same for both men and women.
Answer: B
25. Which statement regarding creatinine is true?
A. Serum levels are elevated in early renal disease. B. High serum levels
result from reduced glomerular filtration. C. Serum creatine has the same
diagnostic utility as serum creatinine. D. Serum creatinine is a more
sensitive measure of renal function than creatinine clearance.
Answer: B
26. Given the following data, calculate the creatinine clearance. Serum
creatinine = 1.2 mg/dL; urine creatinine = 120 mg/dL; urine volume = 1.75
L/day; surface area = 1.80 m2
A. Creatinine clearance = 16 mL/min B. Creatinine clearance = 117 mL/min
C. Creatinine clearance = 126 mL/min D. Creatinine clearance = 168
mL/min
Answer: B
Cancelled !!!
27. Select the primary reagent used in the Jaffe method for creatinine.
A. Alkaline copper II sulfate B. Saturated picric acid and NaOH
C. Sodium nitroprusside and phenol D. Phosphotungstic acid
Answer: B

28. Which of the statements below regarding creatinine methods is true?
A. The reaction of creatinine with alkaline picrate is highly specific.
B. In persons with glomerular disease, enzymatic methods for creatinine are
likely to give higher creatinine clearance results than the Jaffe method.
C. Enzymatic methods generally give higher results for serum creatinine
than methods based on Jaffe’s reaction.
D. When performing a creatinine clearance, the method used for serum
should be enzymatic,
Answer: B
29. Urea is produced from: A. The catabolism of proteins and amino acids
B. Oxidation of purines C. Oxidation of pyrimidines D. The breakdown
of complex carbohydrates
Answer: A
30. Which of the statements below about serum urea is true?
A. Levels are independent of diet. B. Urea is not reabsorbed by the renal
tubules. C. High BUN levels can result from necrotic liver disease.
D. BUN is elevated in prerenal as well as renal failure.
Answer: D
31. Urinary urea measurements may be used for calculation of:
A. Glomerular filtration B. Renal blood flow C. Nitrogen balance
D. All of the above
Answer: C
32. In the ultraviolet enzymatic method for BUN the urease reaction is
coupled to a second enzymatic reaction using:
A. AST B. Glutamate dehydrogenase C. Glutamine synthetase
D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT)
Answer: B
BUN is most frequently measured by the urease uv method in which the
urease reaction is coupled to the glutamate dehydrogenase reaction
generating NAD+
When the urease reaction is performed under first order conditions the
decrease in absorbance at 340 nm is proportional to the urea
concentration.
33. Which product is measured in the coupling step of the urease-UV
method for BUN?
A. CO2 B. Dinitrophenylhydrazine C. Diphenylcarbazone D. NAD+
Answer: B
34. Which enzyme deficiency is responsible for phenylketonuria (PKU)?
A. Phenylalanine hydroxylase B. Tyrosine transaminase
C. p Hydroxyphenylpyruvic acid oxidase D. Homogentisic acid oxidase
Answer: A
35. Blood ammonia levels are usually measured in order to evaluate:
A. Renal failure B. Acid-base status C. Hepatic coma D. Gastrointestinal
malabsorption
Answer: C
Hepatic coma is caused by accumulation of ammonia in the brain as a
result of liver failure. The ammonia increases central nervous system
pH and is coupled to glutamate, a central nervous system
neurotransmitter, forming glutamine. Blood and cerebrospinal fluid
ammonia levels are used to distinguish encephalopathy caused by
cirrhosis or other liver disease from nonhepatic causes and to monitor
patients with hepatic coma.
36. Enzymatic measurement of ammonia requires which of the following
substrates and coenzymes?
Answer: A
Enzymatic assays of ammonia utilize glutamate dehydrogenase (GLD).
This enzyme forms glutamate from a−ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate)
and ammonia, resulting in oxidation of NADH. The rate of absorbance
decrease at 340 nm is proportional to ammonia concentration when the
reaction rate is maintained under first-order conditions.
37. Which statement about ammonia is true?
A. Normally most of the plasma ammonia is derived from intestinal
absorption.
B. Ammonia-induced coma can result from acetaminophen poisoning.
C. Hepatic coma can result from Reye’s syndrome.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D
Most of the ammonia absorbed from the intestines is transported to the
liver via the portal vein and converted to urea. Blood ammonia levels
will rise in any necrotic liver disease, including hepatitis, Reye’s
syndrome, and drug-induced injury. In cirrhosis shunting of portal
blood to the general circulation accounts for the frequency of central
nervous system complications.
38. Uric acid is derived from the:
A. Oxidation of proteins B. Catabolism of purines
C. Oxidation of pyrimidines D. Reduction of catecholamines
Answer: B
39. Which of the following conditions is associated with hyperuricemia?
A. Renal failure B. Chronic liver disease C. Xanthine oxidase
deficiency D. Paget’s disease of the bone
Answer: A
40. Which acid is most frequently used to precipitate protein for
confirmatory urinalysis tests?
A. Trichloroacetic acid B. Nitric acid C. Sulfosalicylic acid
D. Acetic Acid
Answer: A
41. Unconjugated bilirubin is conjugated with __________ in the liver to
become water soluble
A. glycogen B. glucose oxidase C. glucuronic acid D. glycine
Answer: C
42. Which of the following conditions is associated with elevated serum uric
acid levels:
A. Cushing's syndrome
B. Pancreatitis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Gout
Answer: D
43. Most common methods for measuring bilirubin are based on the reaction
of bilirubin with:
A. Methyl alcohol B. Neural salts C. Bilirubin oxidase, D. Diazo
reagent
Answer: D
44. A blood sample is left on a phlebotomy tray for four hours before it is
delivered to the laboratory. Which group of tests could be performed with
the least effect on the results?
A). Glucose, B). Uric Acid, BUN, creatinine C). Total and direct
bilirubin D). CK, ALT, ALP, ACP E). Lactate and ammonia
Answer: B
45. Hyperalbuminemia is caused by:
A. Dehydration syndromes B. Liver disease C. Burns
D. Gastroenteropathy
Answer: A
46. Which of the following dyes is the most specific for measurement of
albumin?
A. Bromcresol green (BCG) B. Bromcresol purple (BCP)
C. Tetrabromosulfophthalein D. Tetrabromphenol blue
Answer: B
47. Which method is considered the candidate reference method for
triglyceride measurement?
A. Glycerol kinase-ultraviolet B. CDC modification of Van Handel and
Zilversmit C. Hantzsch condensation D. Glycerol kinase coupled
to peroxidase
Answer: B
Enzymatic methods for triglyceride measurement are widely used
because they eliminate the need for extraction and saponification.
However, they are subject to positive interference from endogenous
glycerol and variations in the efficiency of lipase, which can result in
under or overestimation of triglycerides. The most accurate method for
triglyceride assay is the nonenzymatic method based upon reaction of
formaldehyde with chromotropic acid. In this method, extraction with
silicic acid and chloroform separates triglycerides from lipoproteins,
phospholipids, and glycerol. Saponification with alcoholic potassium
hydroxide (KOH) produces glycerol, which is oxidized to formaldehyde
by periodate. The formaldehyde reacts with chromotropic acid to form
a pink product. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
method uses a 2:1 ratio of unsaturated (triolein) to saturated
(tripalmitin) triglycerides to calibrate the assay because this represents
the ratio normally found in serum.
48. Which of the following enzymes is common to all enzymatic methods
for triglyceride measurement?
A. Glycerol phosphate oxidase B. Glycerol phosphate dehydrogenase
C. Glycerol kinase D. Pyruvate kinase
Answer: C
All enzymatic triglyceride methods require lipase to hydrolyze
triglycerides, and glycerol kinase to phosphorylate glycerol, forming
glycerol- 3-phosphate. The two most common methods measure the
glycerol-3-phosphate produced.
49. Select the reagent needed in the coupling enzyme reaction used to
generate a colored product in the cholesterol oxidase method for cholesterol.
A. Cholestahexaene B. H2O2 C. Phenol D. Cholest-4-ene-
3-one
Answer: C
Cholesterol oxidase catalyzes the oxidation of free cholesterol at the C3-
OH group, forming cholest-4-ene-3-one and H2O2. The peroxide is used
in a peroxidase reaction to oxidize a dye (e.g., 4-aminophenazone),
which couples to phenol, forming a red quinone imine complex.The
same coupling (indicator) reaction is used in the Trinder glucose oxidase
method.
50. Which of the following substances causes interference with the oxidation
of cholesterol in the Liebermann-Burchard reaction?
A. Acetic acid B. Sulfuric acid C. Acetic anhydride
D. H2O
Answer: D
The Liebermann-Burchard reaction depends upon dehydration of
cholesterol and oxidation by sulfuric acid to form cholestahexaene
sulfonic acid. For complete dehydration the reagent must be anhydrous.
The Liebermann-Burchard reaction is nonspecific and is used only in
the Abell-Kendall method after cholesterol is extracted to remove
interferents and saponified to form free cholesterol.
51. Which of the following methods for HDL cholesterol is the reference
method?
A. Manganese-heparin B. Magnesium-phosphotungstate
C. Magnesium-dextran D. Ultracentrifugation
Answer: D
Ultracentrifugation of plasma in a potassium bromide solution with a
density of 1.063 is used to separate HDL from LDL and VLDL. The
HDL fraction is transferred from the bottom of the tube and assayed for
cholesterol content by the Abell- Kendall method. The remaining three
methods rely upon selective precipitation or magnetic removal of
lipoproteins containing apoprotein B using a polyanionic solution.
Magnesium-dextran and magnesium-phosphotungstate tend to give
slightly lower results than manganese-heparin because they precipitate
some HDL. A “direct HDL” can also be performed using cholesterol
esterase and oxidase enzymes that are conjugated to polyethylene glycol.
In the presence of sulfated cyclodextrin, the polyethylene glycol (PEG)-
modified enzymes display greatly reduced catalytic activity against the
cholesterol of LDL, VLDL, and chylomicrons. The method
is sufficiently selective to measure HDL cholesterol.
52. Cholesterol esterase is used in enzymatic assays to: A. Oxidize
cholesterol to form peroxide B. Hydrolyze fatty acids bound to the third
carbon atom of cholesterol C. Separate cholesterol from apoproteins A-I and
AII by hydrolysis D. Reduce NAD+ to NADH
Answer: B
Approximately two-thirds of the serum cholesterol has a fatty acid
esterified to the hydroxyl group of the third carbon atom of the
cholesterol molecule. Cholesterol esterase hydrolyzes fatty acids and is
required because cholesterol oxidase cannot utilize esterified cholesterol
as a substrate

53. What is the purpose of the saponification step used in the Abell-Kendall
method for cholesterol measurement?
A. Remove phospholipids B. Reduce sterol molecules structurally
similar to Cholesterol C. Convert cholesterol esters to free
cholesterol D. Remove proteins that can interfere with color formation
Answer: C
Saponification is performed to hydrolyze them fatty acid esters of
cholesterol, forming free cholesterol. This is required because the
Liebermann-Burchard reagent reacts more intensely with cholesterol
esters than with free cholesterol. Saponification is followed by
extraction of cholesterol in petroleum ether to separate it from proteins
and interfering substances. The Abell-Kendall method remains the
reference method because differences in esterase activity and
interference in the peroxidase step are potential sources of error in
enzymatic assays.
54. Which type of dietary fatty acid is not associated with an increase in
serum LDL cholesterol production?
A. Monosaturated trans fatty acids B. Saturated fatty acids
C. Monosaturated cis fatty acids D. Monosaturated trans -9 fatty acids
Answer: C
Polyunsaturated and cis monosaturated fatty acids are not associated
with increased production of LDL cholesterol. On the other hand,
saturated and trans monosaturated fatty acids are both associated with
increased LDL. Cis fatty acids are those in which the H atoms belonging
to the double-bonded carbons are on the same side of the molecule.
(n-9) fatty acids are those with a double bond located 9 carbons from
the terminal methyl group. Fatty acids are associated with increased
cholesterol, if the hydrogens attached to the double-bonded carbons are
in the trans position.
55. The increase in the level of serum enzymes used to detect cholestatic
liver disease is caused mainly by:
A. Enzyme release from dead cells B. Leakage from cells with altered
membrane permeability C. Decreased perfusion of the tissue
D. Increased production and secretion by cells
Answer: D
The amount of enzyme in the serum can be increased by necrosis,
altered permeability, secretion, or synthesis. It is also dependent upon
tissue perfusion, enzyme half-life, molecular size, and location of the
enzyme within the cell. Most enzymes are liberated by necrosis, but a
few, such as ALP and g-glutamyltransferase, are producedand secreted
at a greater rate in obstructive liver
disease.
56. Which of the following statements about the aminotransferases (AST
and ALT) is true?
A. Isoenzymes of AST and ALT are not found in humans.
B. Both transfer an amino group to a ketoglutarate.
C. Both require NADP+ as a coenzyme.
D. Both utilize four carbon amino acids as substrates.
Answer: D
ALT catalyzes the transfer of an amino group from alanine, a threecarbon
amino acid, to a ketoglutarate (2-oxoglutarate), forming
pyruvate. AST catalyzes the transfer of an amino group from aspartate
(four carbons) to a-ketoglutarate, forming oxaloacetate. The reactions
are highly reversible and regulate the flow of aspartate into the urea
cycle.
57. Select the products formed from the forward reaction of AST.
A. Alanine and a ketoglutarate B. Oxaloacetate and glutamate
C. Aspartate and glutamine D. Glutamate and NADH
Answer: B
AST forms oxaloacetate and glutamate from aspartate and a
ketoglutarate. Both transaminases use a-ketoglutarate and glutamate as
a common substrate and product pair. Both aspartate and alanine can
be used to generate glutamate in the central nervous system where it
acts as a neurotransmitter.
58. Select the products formed from the forward reaction of ALT.
A. Aspartate and alanine B. Alanine and a ketoglutarate
C. Pyruvate and glutamate D. Glutamine and NAD+
Answer: C
Because glutamate is a common product for transaminases, pyruvate (a
three-carbon ketoacid) and glutamate would be generated from the
transamination reaction between alanine and a ketoglutarate.
59. Which of the statements below regarding the methods of Henry for AST
and ALT is correct?
A. Hemolysis will cause positive interference in
both AST and ALT assays.
B. Loss of activity occurs if samples are frozen at -20 oC.
C. The absorbance at the start of the reaction should not exceed 1.0 A.
D. Reaction rates are unaffected by addition of P-5'-P (pyridoxal-5'
phosphate) to the substrate.
Answer: A
RBCs are rich in AST and to a lesser extent in ALT. Hemolysis causes
positive interference in both assays although the affect on AST is
greater. Samples are stable for up to 24 hours at room temperature and
up to 3 days at 48oC, and should be frozen if kept longer. The starting
absorbance should be at least 1.5 A for both assays. Substrates with
lower concentrations of NADH are subject to NADH depletion during
the lag phase due to side reactions or high transaminase activity. When
P-5'-P (pyridoxal-5'-phosphate) is added, a significant increase in
activity sometimes occurs because some of the enzyme in the serum is in
the inactive apoenzyme form.
59. Which statement below regarding the naming of transaminases is true?
A. Serum glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase (SGOT) is the older
abbreviation for ALT. B. Serum glutamic pyruvic transaminase
(SGPT) is the older abbreviation for AST. C. SGPT is the older
abbreviation for ALT. D. SGOT is the newer abbreviation for AST.
Answer: C
SGOT refers to the products measured in the in vitro reaction, and is
more correctly named AST for the four-carbon amino acid substrate
aspartate. SGPT is the older name referring to the products of the
reaction for ALT. SGPT is more correctly named ALT for the 3-carbon
amino acid substrate alanine.
60. Which condition gives rise to the highest serum level of transaminases?
A. Acute hepatitis B. Alcoholic cirrhosis C. Obstructive biliary
disease D. Diffuse intrahepatic cholestasis
Answer: A
61. Which of the following liver diseases produces the highest levels of
transaminases?
A. Hepatic cirrhosis B. Obstructive jaundice C. Chronic hepatitis
D. Alcoholic hepatitis
Answer: C
Elevation of transaminases is greatest in acute hepatitis. Levels are
moderately elevated in chronic hepatitis and hepatic cancer. They are
slightly elevated in hepatic cirrhosis, alcoholic hepatitis, and
obstructive jaundice.
62. Which of the following statements regarding transaminases is true?
A. ALT is often increased in muscular disease, pancreatitis, and lymphoma.
B. ALT is increased in infectious mononucleosis, but AST is usually normal.
C. ALT is far more specific for liver diseases than is AST.
D. Substrate depletion seldom occurs in assays of serum from hepatitis
cases.
Answer: C
ALT is far more specific for liver disease than AST. Both transaminases
are moderately increased in infectious mononucleosis. High ALT may
result from nonhepatic causes such as muscle injury or disease, and
severe hemolysis, but nonhepatic sources can be ruled out by a high
direct bilirubin. Elevated ALT is used along with immunologic tests for
hepatitis to disqualify blood donors. AST is increased in muscle disease,
pancreatitis, and lymphoma.
63. Select the most sensitive marker for alcoholic liver disease.
A. GLD B. ALT C. AST D. g-Glutamyltransferase (GGT)
Answer: D
Alcoholic hepatitis, GGT is the most sensitive indicator of alcoholic liver
disease. Levels of GGT can reach in excess of 25 times in alcoholic
hepatitis. It is also markedly elevated in obstructive jaundice; a high
GGT supports the inference that liver is the tissue source of an elevated
ALP.
64. Which enzyme is least useful in differentiating necrotic from obstructive
jaundice?
A. GGT B. ALT C. 5' Nucleotidase D. LD
Answer: D
GGT and 5' nucleotidase are markedly elevated in both intra- and
posthepatic obstruction. ALT is slightly elevated in obstructive jaundice
but is markedly elevated in necrotic jaundice. Although LD is usually
greater in necrotic jaundice than in obstructive jaundice, elevations in
these ranges overlap frequently in hepatic disease and result from many
other causes.
65. Which of the statements below about the phosphatases is true?
A. They hydrolyze adenosine triphosphate and related compounds.
B. They are divided into two classes based upon pH needed for activity.
C. They exhibit a high specificity for substrate.
D. They are activated by Pi.
Answer: B
Phosphatases are classified as either alkaline or acid depending upon
the pH needed for optimum activity. The phosphatases hydrolyze a wide
range of monophosphoric acid esters. ALP is inhibited by phosphorus
(product inhibition).
66. Which of the following statements regarding ALP is true?
A. In normal adults the primary tissue source is fast-twitch skeletal muscle.
B. Geriatric patients have a lower serum ALP than other adults.
C. Serum ALP levels are lower in children than in adults.
D. Pregnant women have a higher level of serum ALP than other adults.
Answer: B
ALP is higher in children than in adults due to bone growth. Children
and geriatric patients have higher serum ALP due to increased bone
isoenzyme. Serum ALP levels are often two- or threefold higher than
the URL in the third term of pregnancy. In nonpregnant normal adults
serum ALP is derived from liver and bone. Liver, bone, placental, renal,
and intestinal isoenzymes of ALP can be separated by electrophoresis,
and many other ALP isoenzymes have been identified by isofocusing.
RBCs, leukocytes, and the prostate are the primary sources of acid
phosphatase isoenzymes.
67. Fill in the blanks
Bilirubin that reacts with the diazo reagent without the addition of alcohol is
called _ _direct____or__conjugated_______ while the form that reacts
only in the presence of alcohol is called ______indirect___ or
__unconjugated__________
68. During starvation all tissues adapt to minimize glucose oxidation in the
body. Since the brain cannot efficiently oxidize _fatty acids___, it switches
to the use of __ketonbodies_____synthesized in the liver as a major fuel.
69. Free fatty acids are transported in the blood stream:
a. As part of LDLs. b. Bound to carnitine. c. Bound to transacylase.
d. Bound to albumin. e. Bound to acyl carrier protein.
Answer: D
70. Match the following with the appropriate description.
A. Bile Salts B. Lipoprotein lipase C. Hormone-sensitive lipase
D. Pancreatic lipase E. Clathrin F. Albumin G. Chylomicrons H.
LDL I. Carnitine J. Citrate K. Malic enzyme
L. HMG-CoA
1.__F___ Carrier of free fatty acids in blood 2. __G__Carrier of dietary
triglycerides in blood. 3.__I___ Required for translocation of fatty acids
from cytosol to mitochondrial matrix. 4.__J___ Intermediate in
translocation of acetyl-CoA from mitochondrial matrix to cytosol.
5._C____ Activated by cyclic AMP during fasting. 6.___B__ Malfunction
is associated with high blood triglyceride levels.
71. Select the appropriate cell type:
__E____ Relies on glycolysis as the only energy-producing metabolic
sequence
a. Skeletal muscle cells b. Liver cells c. Brain neuron d. Adipocyte
e. Erythrocyte (red blood cell)
72. Newborns with excessively high bilirubin levels are treated with blue
fluorescent light. This treatment converts the bilirubin to more soluble
isomers, which can then be excreted in the urine. Before receiving this
treatment, these newborns fail to excrete sufficient quantities of bilirubin in
the urine because they have a low activity of
a. bilirubin glucuronyl transferase b. bilirubin albuminyl transferase
c. bilirubin oxidase d. bilirubin dehydrogenase e. bilirubin
glutathionyl-S-transferase
Answer: A
73. Which of the following statements about heme metabolism is correct?
a. heme synthesis begins in the mitochondrion and ends in the cytoplasm b.
the rate limiting step is the addition of Fe++ to protoporphyrin IX c. activity
of the delta-aminolevulinic acid (ALA) synthetase enzyme is stimulated by
heme d. heme synthesis begins in the cytosol and ends in the mitochondrion
e. activity of the delta-aminolevulinic acid is inhibited by heme
Answer: E
74. An important feature of Acetyl-CoA metabolism involves its:
a. Ability to combine with citrate. b. Use to form ketone bodies.
c. Reversible conversion to pyruvate. d. Reduction via the TCA cycle.
e. Allosteric inhibition of hormone-sensitive lipase.
Answer: B
75. Fill in the blanks
After a meal, the fuels that we eat are oxidized to meet our immediate
energy needs. Any excess fuel is stored as glycogen in muscle and liver, but
mainly as __________triglycerides_____in __adipose tissue________
.
76. Ketone bodies supply a significant portion of the brain’s fuel druing this
period.
a. Well-fed state b. Early fasting state c. Fasting state d. Early refed state
Answer: C

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وكمان
ياسمسن كانت بتسأل دكتور محمد أمين قال ايه لمجموعة ب بعد الامتحان
هو قال نركز على شوية حاجات مكنهم من ص 3 الى 15
والوورد كله والباقى مش فاكره دلوقتى
هابقى اشوف وارد عليكم

مروة ممكن الحل بتاع شابتر 3 بتاع دكتور ابراهيم طنطاوى مجموع أ
أو ياريت اى حد معاه الحل يبعته ويرد عليا الاول

اوكى
حاضر هبعته دلوقت

الكل بدا هستولوجي مزاكره ولا لسه
اعتقد الكل يبدا من الكتاب ان شاء الله
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سلااااااااااااااااام

حل شيت شبتر 3 البيو لدكتور ابراهيم طنطاوى

1.b
2.a
3.e
4.a
5.d
6.ملغى
7.d
8.b
9.a
10.d
11.c
12.a
13.b
14.c
15.d
16.d
17.e
18.ملغى
19.e
20.a
21.c
22.b
23.d
24.a
25.c
26.d
27.e
28.d
29.b
30.e
31.e
32.c
33.c
34.e
35.ملغى
36.ملغى
37.a

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